At matchpoints, with only them vulnerable, after three passes, I opened 1 diamond with the following 17 high card point hand:
♠ K97 ♡AK ♢AQJ982 ♣ 76.
I did not open 1NT because of my two doubletons, one of them weak.
Partner raised to 2 diamonds. At this point, I rebid 2NT figuring that our diamonds, at least, were solid (they were), and that a 3NT contract was "on" if we could stop all three suits. This left the decision of whether or not to go to 3NT to a partner I trusted. She did so with the following hand:
♠ T42 ♡Q52 ♢KT54 ♣ KJ5.
Was this a good way to get to 3NT or was there a better sequence? Put another way, was it worthwhile to gamble that my partner had clubs stopped, and would have left us in 2NT if shee didn't have adequate stoppers.