At matchpoints, with only them vulnerable, I was defending against a strong two club sequence bid by a husband and wife team.
Wife opened 2 clubs (strong) on my right with ♠ AK64 ♡AQ ♢AQ ♣ KJ742. Husband bid 2 diamonds (waiting) after my pass.
If opener rebids 2 of a major after these two bids, a responder who has a bust can plead "double negative" with 2NT, which allows opener to rebid only three of the major (that is less than game). If opener rebids 2NT, responder can pass at that point to invoke the double negative. At least that's the way we play in our club.
But wife bid 3 clubs. Husband was supposed to bid on, even with only ♠ 97 ♡97642 ♢J962 ♣ Q9. But he passed, and the couple got a top because they made 3 clubs and all the other players with their cards went down at 3NT.
Should wife have limited her re-bid to 2NT and given her husband the option of passing (and earning the top)? I don't see the point of her bidding three clubs with her hand. (If I plan to rebid three clubs after a strong two, I would want extra strength, i.e. six clubs to go with my 22 high card points, or 25 high card points if I only had five, because it takes 11 tricks to make a club game. And the three club bid forecloses responder's 2NT "double negative" option.)