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Can one reasonably make inferences about partner's first bid based on the second bid?

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With no one vulnerable at matchpoints, my (occasional) partner dealt and bid one diamond with the following:

(s) 752 (h) QT7 (d) AQJ52 (c) A8.

I bid one heart. She re-bid two diamonds, and I reluctantly bid three clubs, a suit in which I was as long as hearts. She rebid three diamonds, and I passed, even though my distribution was 3-5-void-5 (with seven high card points).

Partner said, the she didn't want to raise my (presumed) four card heart suit with only three, and she never dreamed that I had zero diamonds. I said that I had bid two suits, and therefore was more likely to be at least 5-4 hearts-clubs than 4-4, wanted her to choose a round suit and implied shortage in her suit, since I didn't raise two diamonds. Was this (verbal) reply reasonable given the previous bidding?

And was I right to pass based on my mistaken premise that partner had seven diamonds for her bid, on the grounds that 7-0 in diamonds would be better than a (presumed) 5-2 fIt (which was actually 5-3) in hearts?


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