With neither vulnerable at matchpoints, I opened one diamond in fourth seat with the following: ♠87 ♥A964 ♦AKQT54 ♣6.
Partner raised to 2NT (10-12 points invitational) with the following: ♠KQ ♥KQ5 ♦9876 ♣QT85.
I felt the need to clarify my hand, so I rebid 3 diamonds, showing six diamonds and 12+ high card points. My two questions were: 1) "Do you have a full 12," and 2)do you have a stopper in every suit? I feared that he could have made the same 2NT bid with ♠KQ ♥KQ5 ♦9876 ♣T985.
Although he eould answer my questions in the affirmative, he passed and we got a bottom. In bidding as I did, I feared the weakness of my two black suit holdings. With better balance, say ♠874 ♥A96 ♦AKQT54 ♣6, I would gone directly to 3NT.
Should I have done this anyway? Was it ok for me to clarify my hand? Or could I even have used a "gambling" 3NT opening (after clarifying it with partner).